I have a foreign currency bank account that has experienced a capital loss when viewed in C$
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I'm reasonably clear on the concepts of acquisition costs and capital losses on dispositions / purchases from that account - convert transactions into C$ at relevant dates, etc.
What I'm not sure about is whether a transfer from this account to another same-currency account is a disposition - which would trigger a loss, followed by a purchase at a lower cost-base? Or is this a transaction to which superficial-loss rules apply - which would imply that it couldn't be reported as a capital loss at line 174? I see that question has already been raised - but no answer....
CRA's IT387
Meaning of Identical Properties doesn't specifically address either cash or cash in a bank account - but I'd think that all cash of a given currency would be identical property?
Which then leads to the purchase of same-currency shares (which would also require a transfer from the chequing account to a brokerage cash account)? Are shares sufficiently different from cash that they are not identical property? Here my guess would be that shares are not identical property - and thus the loss in the cash account should be recorded at the purchase date of the shares?